> 3e. Re: Here we go again?
> Date: Tue Jan 15, 2008 5:13 pm ((PST))
>
> --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.
> >
> > Why does the variance changes in multi-line, depending on the
> > denomination per line?
> >
> > Or, to put it another way....
> >
> > Why is the variance different if I play 5 cent 100-line vs.
> > $1 5-line vs. $5 1-line? Either way, it's $25 per pull.
> >
> > Or, maybe, I misunderstood?
> >
> >
>
> You need to understand the concept of covariance. Because so many
> hands share the same deal and only the draw is separate, it
> increases total variance vs a game where every deal and draw is a
> separate event. A single play FPJB game has a variance of a bit
> over 19, as I recall. The same game in hundred play has a variance
> of something like 214. See the Jazbo or Wizard of Odds links to N
> Play discussions.
>
OK, now I'M the one confused. It's been way too many years since I had my statistics courses to remember the difference between variance and co-variance (and giving me the formulas won't educate me anymore).
Please help me with "plain english" -- the $1 5-play vs the $5 single-line game, for example -- it's my understanding that if I'm putting the same money at risk per "pull", the multi-line game will give me less peaks and valleys, with the same long-term expectation per dollar risked.
Is that correct, or does the higher variance (described above, eg, 19 vs 214 for single vs 100-play), mean I'm wrong?
Thanks!
--BG
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