[vpFREE] Re: Here we go again?

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "cmayhem2001" <chandler_re@...> wrote:
>
> --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Luke Fuller" <kungalooosh@> wrote:
> >
> > Why does the variance changes in multi-line, depending on the
> > denomination per line?
> >
> > Or, to put it another way....
> >
> > Why is the variance different if I play 5 cent 100-line vs.
> > $1 5-line vs. $5 1-line? Either way, it's $25 per pull.
> >
> > Or, maybe, I misunderstood?
> >
> >
>
> You need to understand the concept of covariance. Because so many
> hands share the same deal and only the draw is separate, it
> increases total variance vs a game where every deal and draw is a
> separate event. A single play FPJB game has a variance of a bit
> over 19, as I recall. The same game in hundred play has a variance
> of something like 214. See the Jazbo or Wizard of Odds links to N
> Play discussions.
>
> Chandler
>

I once held a FL4H1 on a fifty play and missed all the way up. Zero
credits for that hand. That's some hellatious variance.

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