I have found that usually the more math people try to explain a
concept to non-math people the more confused both of them get. At least
I do.
For whomever posted the original question (or anyone else), think of
it this way.
You are playing a 1 million-play machine. (And don't quibble, people.
Assume that's the number required)
Every hand you hold will end up paying you the theoretical amount that
the hold was worth. In fact, playing this million-play machine, there is
no need to draw at all, since it will always come out the same (within a
few decimal points) so the designers of the Million-Play machine remove
the draw (since everyone in the year 2020 now plays the draw perfectly)
and has the machine pay you what those million draws would come to
directly after the deal. ALL the variance is on the deal. Basically it's
a slot machine in VP form. Oh, and the best pay table is 97.3%
(considered "full-pay" in '20.)
Back to reality: Obviously, as the number of plays decrease from 1
million to 1 thousand to 100 to 3, the chances of getting a variety of
results increases. But it's only a matter of degree. In any Multi-Play,
the deal gets the full load of variance while the variance of the draw
is reduced more and more as the number of hands increase.
Hope that helps.
Skip
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