I'd like to hear an example of how it legally benefitted a casino to have said "management reserves all rights." If a player in the NFL wrote in his contract "the player reserves all rights," could he then violate the terms of his contract without penalty?
(Btw, my spell checker doesn't seem to like "benefitted," although m-w.com says it's acceptable. I could have sworn that that's how I was taught to spell it in school. When did it become "benefited?" Shouldn't that be pronounced with a long "i?")
----- chungsterama <chungsty@yahoo.com> wrote:
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, Cogno Scienti <cognoscienti@...> wrote:
> > And you think that if someone writes something down that makes it true?
> >
>
> Unlike you, I've read the summaries on these cases. There's ample case law and "precedent" on that clause.
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
Re: [vpFREE] Re: Coast Connection Today
__._,_.___
.
__,_._,___