[vpFREE] Re: poker math

 

Thanks much. So, just to make sure I got this right:

If I played 100 hands, it is about 8.9 to 1 against me not getting dealt trips (i.e., about 11.3% of the time I won't get dealt trips in 100 hands).

If I played 250 hands, it is about 234.8 to 1 against me not getting dealt trips (i.e., about 0.4% of the time I won't get dealt trips in 250 hands).

--and--

If I played 500 hands, it is about 55,130.8 to 1 against me not getting dealt trips (i.e., about 0.00002% of the time I won't get dealt trips in 500 hands).

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, Jason Pawloski <jpawloski@...> wrote:
>
> The probability of not receiving dealt trips is 1-(1/46.3). Since hands are
> independent, the probability of not receiving dealt trips in two hands is
> the square of this value, in the three hands is the cube of this value, and
> so on. So assuming hands, I get the odds to be 167565075937230.
>
> On Sat, Mar 26, 2011 at 9:56 AM, Jeff McDaniel <jmcdaniel@...>wrote:
>
> >
> >
> > I have a question for the math folks. If I understand the calculations
> > correctly, on the deal, I will receive dealt trips about once every 46.3
> > hands. I was recently playing and did not receive dealt trips for about an
> > hour and a half. Assume I play 1,000 hands per hour, so I received 1 dealt
> > trip in 1,500 trials. How unusual was that result? Is standard deviation the
> > proper way to determine/express how unusual the result was? Is there a
> > website you can point me to help me learn how to perform the calculation
> > myself? Many thanks in advance for your help. Jeff
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
>

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