[vpFREE] Re: poker math

 



In my book it's entitled "C = 1-(P-1/P) to the power of N". as a joke.

I also emphatically state the "Tahoe" is a Washoe Indian word which in the native tung means, "Tahoe"...most people don't get the humor.

I've been using that equation for so long I can't remember for SURE what's it is called. I believe it's part of binomial theorem. Someone correct me if I'm wrong.

I do remember the first person to teach me the formula was Elliot Shapiro, one of the original Team Scouts that was already on the team when I started at 21. He passed a few years back. He certainly knew his stuff.

I'd like to make a very important point. As a team scout (or player) I had no one putting a gun to my head to learn equations like this...but mindlessly following the lead of other people that could do the math was not something I could tolerate. A desire to learn all you can about anything one is engaged in, is an absolutely indispensable trait for pulling ahead in your field and for pro gambling in particular.

This is one of the reasons I included MATH in my book. The BEST opportunities in gambling will always be things no one has yet figured out. Any book on gambling will mostly be about things the author has already figured out. That's why I wanted to include the tools one needs to deduce things that did not yet exist at the time of it's publishing.

Cheers,

~FK

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Jeff McDaniel" <jmcdaniel@...> wrote:
>
> Thanks. So, for that hour and half, I was either the most unlucky person to walk that planet for quite some time or I had a serious fault with my perception of time, my attention to whether I actually got dealt trips, or both. I guess I will have to go with "both."
>
> Is there a name given to that formula so I may read up on it?
>
> --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Frank" <frank@> wrote:
> >
> > It a very simple equation and you should memories it.
> >
> > C = 1-(P-1/P) to the power of N
> >
> > So 46.3 - 1 = 45.3
> >
> > 1-(45.3 / 46.3) ^ 500 = 99.99% chance of hitting at least 1.
> >
> > If as you say, you didn't get one in 1.5 hours, it's a media event. Perhaps the third most unlikely thing every to happen.
> >
> > If you were wondering what the 1st and 2ond most unlikely things were, the answer is: Just Coincidences.
> >
> > ~FK
> >
> >
> >
> > --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Jeff McDaniel" <jmcdaniel@> wrote:
> > >
> > > I have a question for the math folks. If I understand the calculations correctly, on the deal, I will receive dealt trips about once every 46.3 hands. I was recently playing and did not receive dealt trips for about an hour and a half. Assume I play 1,000 hands per hour, so I received 1 dealt trip in 1,500 trials. How unusual was that result? Is standard deviation the proper way to determine/express how unusual the result was? Is there a website you can point me to help me learn how to perform the calculation myself? Many thanks in advance for your help. Jeff
> > >
> >
>

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