This is my own simple explanation of why the answer to the question is 1 in 11, not 1 in 6. A two dice game is perfectly symmetrical. There are 36 total outcomes (6X6):
1 combination makes a total of 2.
2 combinations make a total of 3.
3 combinations make a total of 4.
4 combinations make a total of 5
5 combinations make a total of 6.
6 combinations make a total of 7.
5 combinations make a total of 8.
4 combinations make a total of 9.
3 combinations make a total of 10.
2 combinations make a total of 11.
1 combinations make a total of 12.
That totals to 36 possible outcomes. Why is there 2 combinations that make a total of 11? You specifically have to roll a six and a five. Wouldn't that be just one combination? No. The reason is because the 11 can come in two different orders. Die A can be the six and die B can be the five. Or, Die A can be the five and die B can be the six. It doesn't matter if the roll is six-five, or six-four or 2-5 or 3-4. The same is true for all of these examples.
Here are the combinations that the Wiz will gain 1 point with:
2-6, 6-2
2-5, 5-2
2-4, 4-2
2-3, 3-2
2-1, 1-2
The 1 in 6 crowd says that "if at least one of the dice is a two then it is 1 in 6 that the other die will be a 2. Take a look at the above ten combinations again. Notice that in all of them "at least one of the dice is a 2."
This is why the Wiz will beat anyone who gambles with him at this game.
[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
Posted by: mickeycrimm@yahoo.com
| Reply via web post | • | Reply to sender | • | Reply to group | • | Start a New Topic | • | Messages in this topic (10) |
