At the risk of beating a dead horse this question is about the device law, specifically about the "gaining an advantage" clause. Let's say I had software that if used every hand would play 9-6 Jacks or Better at 99.5%. I can play 9-6 Jacks perfectly. What advantage did I gain? By using the device I actually lose over not using the devise. I certainly do not have an advantage over the casino using this software (I am at a 1/2% disadvantage). This also brings up an interesting point - it might be legal for me to use this devise but illegal for a poor player (one that plays 9-6 jacks at less than 99.5%). I lose over what I would play without the device but the poor player gains by using the devise. This seems totally absurd to me. Also would it be legal for me to use approx. software that plays 10-7 Double Bonus at 100.1%? I can play 10-7 DB at over 100.1% so I lose by using the software over not using it. As far as "gaining" an advantage I could reply "I did not gain an advantage, I already had the advantage without the devise, in fact an even greater advantage".
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Posted by: nordo123@aol.com
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