Mickey:
I made just a few bets on sports this year--all NFL. I'm no guru on the subject, but I've done quite well spending some time studying the teams & using my head along with gut feel. I'm just a straight bettor who doesn't shop lines, do middles or any of the things professional handicappers do. The problem is, I don't really know what my win % is based on: dollars won or bets won....and how does that big they get figure in?
I bet only 2 weekends this year--one in Dec. and one in Jan. Last weekend I made six $100 bets on games and overs/unders, and I won 3 of them. But in Dec. I felt very strong about four games and put $6k on a four team parlay--and won.
Is that considered 4 for 4 or just a single win?
Sent from my Verizon Wireless 4GLTE smartphone
----- Reply message -----
From: "Mickey" <mickeycrimm@yahoo.com>
To: <vpFREE@yahoogroups.com>
Subject: [vpFREE] Re: Bob Dancer's LV Advisor Column - 10 JAN 2012
Date: Wed, Jan 11, 2012 8:43 pm
>
> Bob Dancer wrote:
> Winning at a 54% rate means that you have an 8% edge, or in the way the number is expressed in video poker circles, you're playing a 108% game.
> ================
jeffcole2003oct wrote:
> To break even in sports betting, you have to win 11 bets for every 10 bets you lose, so a win percentage of 52.4% (11/21) means you break even. Wouldn't winning at a 54% rate give you a 2(54% - 52.4%) = 3.2% edge instead of an 8% edge?
>
>
Bob is referring to the fact that if you are winning 54% of your bets your opponent is only winning 46% rate against you. That's an 8% difference. Of course, the juice is not calculated in.
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Re: [vpFREE] Re: Bob Dancer's LV Advisor Column - 10 JAN 2012
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