Although I don't know the math, the other consideration is denomination. I think when people say multi-line is less volatile than single-line, what you need to be thinking is, for example, single line quarter machine vs. 5-play nickel machine -- i.e., the amount wagered per play is the same. Your personal bankroll will certainly fluctuate more if you're playing $1 machines on a 5-play machine than it will if you're playing $1 machines single line (all else being the same, of course), because your total wager per hand is greater, even though you're drawing (on non-pat hands) five times to the same hand in multi-line. One hand of 5-play is NOT the same as 5 hands of single play at the same denomination.
While I'm not absolutely sure I have this right, my understanding is that if you are playing $1 single line play, you'd have a smaller risk of ruin playing $0.25 5-play (again, same game / paytable etc.).
For those who don't report non-W2G income, there is an obvious additional advantage to the lower denomination.
--BG
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8b. Re: VP Volatility: single-line > multi-line?
Date: Thu Jan 16, 2014 6:09 pm ((PST))
roaches@austin.rr.com wrote:
>Not necessarily a new topic, but I can't find any in-depth discussion or explanation of why, for example, five-play is less volatile than single-play. If, in fact, it is, is there a formula for calculating the difference? And is it reasonable to assume 10-play is less volatile than 5-play?
>
> Thanks for any help...
The rule of thumb I've heard, which makes intuitive sense, is that
volatility is based on the square root of the number of lines. 4-play
would be twice as volatile or, as I believe you meant when you wrote
that more lines reduces volatility, half as volatile per amount bet as
single line.
Date: Thu Jan 16, 2014 6:09 pm ((PST))
roaches@austin.rr.com wrote:
>Not necessarily a new topic, but I can't find any in-depth discussion or explanation of why, for example, five-play is less volatile than single-play. If, in fact, it is, is there a formula for calculating the difference? And is it reasonable to assume 10-play is less volatile than 5-play?
>
> Thanks for any help...
The rule of thumb I've heard, which makes intuitive sense, is that
volatility is based on the square root of the number of lines. 4-play
would be twice as volatile or, as I believe you meant when you wrote
that more lines reduces volatility, half as volatile per amount bet as
single line.
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