under Case 2, where it says:
BP: KQ, KJ, QJ > SF3 2h2i; SF3 1h1i; SF3 0h0i usually
I might be missing something here, but I can't think of any time that "KQ, KJ, QJ > SF3 2h2i; SF3 1h1i" would be correct in 8/5 Bonus Poker unless you had a sufficiently high progressive, but I think the article is talking about regular 8/5 Bonus strategy.
For the case with, SF3 2h2i, that would be saying that you drop a suited 9 from KQ9, KJ9 and a suited 8 from
QJ8
The KQ, KJ, QJ can't be a different suit than the SF3 2h2i or you would have a high pair that you hold instead.
The only relevant SF3 1h1i would be J98 because QT9 would make a straight or QQ with any KQ, KJ, QJ and JT8 would make a KQJT or JJ. And with J98 vs KQ , you hold the J98 .
Like I said I could be missing something here, but I can't seem to think of any time that KQ, KJ, QJ > SF3 2h2i; SF3 1h1i is correct barring progressives...
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